March 08, 2025 Current Affairs (English)

March 08, 2025 Current Affairs (English)

1. What is the required annual growth rate India must sustain to achieve high-income status by 2047?

A) 6.7%
B) 7.8%
C) 5.5%
D) 8.5%

Answer: B) 7.8%

2. Which of the following is NOT a key challenge India faces in achieving high-income status?

A) Dominance of agriculture in employment
B) Underdeveloped financial sector
C) High labor productivity across all sectors
D) Infrastructure and logistics inefficiencies

Answer: C) High labor productivity across all sectors

3. What percentage of India’s workforce is currently employed in agriculture?

A) 30%
B) 46%
C) 55%
D) 18%

Answer: B) 46%

4. Which constitutional provision allows for preventive detention in India?

A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 22(3)(b)
C) Article 32
D) Article 14

Answer: B) Article 22(3)(b)

5. What was the Supreme Court’s primary reason for quashing the preventive detention orders in the Nagaland case?

A) Lack of valid evidence linking the detainees to the crime
B) Detention orders were in English, which the detainees did not understand
C) The Supreme Court ruled that preventive detention is unconstitutional
D) The detainees had a history of previous offenses

Answer: B) Detention orders were in English, which the detainees did not understand

6. Which of the following is a key concern regarding the use of preventive detention in India?

A) It strengthens the judiciary’s power over executive actions
B) It lacks procedural safeguards, making detainees vulnerable to misuse and rights violations
C) It is widely accepted as a democratic practice across the world
D) It is used only for minor offenses and does not affect fundamental rights

Answer: B) It lacks procedural safeguards, making detainees vulnerable to misuse and rights violations

7. What legal doctrine was established by the Anwar Ali Sarkar Case (1952) in the interpretation of Article 14 of the Indian Constitution?

A) Doctrine of Basic Structure
B) Reasonable Classification Test
C) Doctrine of Separation of Powers
D) Principle of Natural Justice

Answer: B) Reasonable Classification Test

8. Which of the following is NOT a valid requirement under the Reasonable Classification Test?

A) The classification must be based on intelligible differentia
B) There must be a rational nexus between the classification and the law’s objective
C) The classification must be arbitrary and subjective
D) The classification should be based on real and substantial distinctions

Answer: C) The classification must be arbitrary and subjective

9. Which landmark case expanded the interpretation of Article 14 beyond classification and introduced the concept of arbitrariness as a violation of the right to equality?

A) D.S. Nakara v. Union of India (1983)
B) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)
C) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952)
D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Answer: B) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

10. What is the primary advantage of quantum computing over classical computing?

A) Quantum computers consume less power than classical computers
B) Quantum computers can process vast amounts of data in parallel using qubits
C) Quantum computers use traditional bits but at a higher frequency
D) Quantum computers do not require cooling systems

Answer: B) Quantum computers can process vast amounts of data in parallel using qubits

11. Which of the following is a key challenge in the development of quantum computing?

A) Lack of interest from global tech companies
B) Hardware instability and decoherence of qubits
C) Quantum computers are already commercially available at large scale
D) Quantum computing does not require significant investment

Answer: B) Hardware instability and decoherence of qubits

12. Which initiative by India focuses on developing quantum computing, communication, sensing, and materials?

A) Digital India Mission
B) National Supercomputing Mission
C) National Quantum Mission (NQM)
D) Make in India Initiative

Answer: C) National Quantum Mission (NQM)

13. Which of the following statements about the Dnipro River is correct?

A) It is the longest river in Europe.
B) It flows through Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea.
C) It originates in the Carpathian Mountains.
D) It does not have any hydroelectric power plants along its course.

Answer: B) It flows through Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea.

14. Why is the Dnipro River significant in the ongoing Russia-Ukraine war?

A) It is used by Russia as the primary route for military supplies.
B) It serves as a natural defensive line and a battleground for territorial control.
C) Ukraine and Russia use it as a diplomatic meeting point.
D) It has no military significance but is important for agriculture.

Answer: B) It serves as a natural defensive line and a battleground for territorial control.

15. According to the IMF’s “India Financial System Stability Assessment” report, what is one of the key vulnerabilities of Public Sector Banks (PSBs)?

A) Low exposure to high-risk sectors like power and infrastructure
B) Lack of government support in case of financial distress
C) Relatively higher vulnerability to credit risk and need for capital strengthening
D) Inability to conduct lending operations due to lack of liquidity

Answer: C) Relatively higher vulnerability to credit risk and need for capital strengthening

16. What is the primary cause of systemic risk identified in the IMF report regarding India’s financial sector?

A) High exposure of NBFCs to the power sector, leading to potential spillover risks
B) Overdependence on Public Sector Banks for lending operations
C) Lack of cybersecurity measures in banking systems
D) High cash reserve requirements for NBFCs and PSBs

Answer: A) High exposure of NBFCs to the power sector, leading to potential spillover risks

17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)?

A) They cannot accept demand deposits like savings or current accounts
B) They are part of the payment and settlement system
C) They rely on sources like Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) and securitization for funding
D) Their deposits are not insured by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)

Answer: B) They are part of the payment and settlement system

18. What is the primary demand of Telangana in the Krishna River water dispute?

A) Telangana demands 50% share of the Krishna River water
B) Telangana seeks 70% of the Krishna River water, proportional to its basin area
C) Telangana wants Andhra Pradesh to receive all the water due to its larger population
D) Telangana demands that only Karnataka and Maharashtra use Krishna River water

Answer: B) Telangana seeks 70% of the Krishna River water, proportional to its basin area

19. Which Indian states are part of the Krishna River basin?

A) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana
B) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh
C) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Odisha
D) Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Gujarat

Answer: A) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana

20. Where does the Krishna River originate?

A) Mullayanagiri Peak, Karnataka
B) Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra
C) Nallamala Hills, Andhra Pradesh
D) Satpura Range, Madhya Pradesh

Answer: B) Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra