February 10, 2025 Current Affairs (English)

February 10, 2025 Current Affairs (English)

1. What is the primary purpose of a Gene Bank?

A) To store financial assets of agricultural companies
B) To preserve seeds, pollen, or plant tissues for biodiversity conservation
C) To develop genetically modified organisms (GMOs) for commercial use
D) To provide direct funding for farmers to increase crop yield

Answer: B) To preserve seeds, pollen, or plant tissues for biodiversity conservation

2. Which institution established India’s first National Gene Bank in 1996?

A) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research – National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (ICAR-NBPGR)
C) International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT)
D) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Answer: B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research – National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (ICAR-NBPGR)

3. Under which Act was the National Gene Fund established?

A) Environment Protection Act, 1986
B) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
C) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001 (PPVFR Act)
D) Biological Diversity Act, 2002

Answer: C) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001 (PPVFR Act)

4. Which of the following is NOT a crop conserved at the ICRISAT Genebank?

A) Sorghum
B) Chickpea
C) Cotton
D) Pearl Millet

Answer: C) Cotton

5. Kalbeliya Dance is traditionally associated with which Indian state?

A) Gujarat
B) Rajasthan
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Maharashtra

Answer: B) Rajasthan

6. What is the primary musical instrument used by Kalbeliya men during dance performances?

A) Mridangam
B) Poongi
C) Santoor
D) Dholak

Answer: B) Poongi

7. Why did the Kalbeliya community’s traditional occupation as snake charmers decline?

A) Introduction of modern circus performances
B) Decline in the number of snakes in Rajasthan
C) Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 banned snake handling
D) Loss of interest among younger generations

Answer: C) Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 banned snake handling

8. What was the major reform introduced in the Indian Forest Act, 1927, regarding bamboo in 2018?

A) Bamboo was classified as a protected species.
B) Bamboo grown outside forests was removed from the definition of trees.
C) Bamboo cultivation was completely banned in forest areas.
D) Farmers were restricted from using bamboo for commercial purposes.

Answer: B) Bamboo grown outside forests was removed from the definition of trees.

9. Under the Restructured National Bamboo Mission (NBM), what is the funding pattern for states (excluding Northeast and hilly states)?

A) 100% Central Government funding
B) 90:10 (Centre:State)
C) 60:40 (Centre:State)
D) 50:50 (Centre:State)

Answer: C) 60:40 (Centre:State)

10. Why is bamboo considered an effective contributor to environmental sustainability?

A) Bamboo releases 35% more oxygen than most other vegetation.
B) Bamboo is the slowest-growing plant and prevents deforestation.
C) Bamboo is primarily used for fossil fuel production.
D) Bamboo requires heavy chemical fertilizers to grow.

Answer: A) Bamboo releases 35% more oxygen than most other vegetation.

11. What is the primary objective of the Restructured Skill India Programme (SIP)?

A) To promote traditional education over vocational training.
B) To provide government jobs to all trained individuals.
C) To ensure skill training is industry-aligned, technology-enabled, and demand-driven.
D) To replace private sector involvement in skill development.

Answer: C) To ensure skill training is industry-aligned, technology-enabled, and demand-driven.

12. Under the Pradhan Mantri National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (PM-NAPS), what percentage of the stipend is covered by the Central Government?

A) 50%
B) 100%
C) 25% (up to ₹1,500 per month per apprentice)
D) No stipend support is provided

Answer: C) 25% (up to ₹1,500 per month per apprentice)

13. Which of the following schemes under the Skill India Programme (SIP) focuses on community-based skilling for women, rural youth, and economically disadvantaged groups?

A) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
B) Pradhan Mantri National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (PM-NAPS)
C) Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) Scheme
D) National Credit Framework (NCrF)

Answer: C) Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) Scheme

14. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is an arrested person required to be informed of the grounds of their arrest?

A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 22(1)
D) Article 32

Answer: C) Article 22(1)

15. As per the Supreme Court ruling, failure to inform an accused of the grounds of arrest violates which fundamental right?

A) Right to Equality under Article 14
B) Right to Freedom under Article 19
C) Right to Life & Personal Liberty under Article 21
D) Right against Exploitation under Article 23

Answer: C) Right to Life & Personal Liberty under Article 21

16. According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, within how many hours must an arrested person be presented before a magistrate?

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 72 hours

Answer: B) 24 hours

17. When was the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) originally established as a statutory body?

A) 1991
B) 1993
C) 1994
D) 2004

Answer: C) 1994

18. What is the primary function of the NCSK under the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013?

A) Monitor the implementation of the Act
B) Provide financial assistance to Safai Karamcharis
C) Regulate employment opportunities for Safai Karamcharis
D) Provide legal services to Safai Karamcharis

Answer: A) Monitor the implementation of the Act

19. Under which ministry does the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) function?

A) Ministry of Labour and Employment
B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Rural Development

Answer: B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

20. What is the primary function of Indian diplomatic missions abroad?

A) Conduct military operations in foreign countries
B) Represent India’s interests, strengthen bilateral relations, and provide consular services
C) Only issue visas and passports to Indian citizens
D) Regulate trade agreements between India and host countries

Answer: B) Represent India’s interests, strengthen bilateral relations, and provide consular services

21. What is the key difference between an Embassy and a High Commission?

A) High Commissions are established in Commonwealth countries, while Embassies are set up elsewhere
B) High Commissions are more powerful than Embassies
C) Embassies only handle trade, while High Commissions handle diplomatic matters
D) High Commissions function only under the United Nations

Answer: A) High Commissions are established in Commonwealth countries, while Embassies are set up elsewhere

22. Which of the following statements about the Parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs is correct?

A) It consists of 50 members from both houses of Parliament
B) It is a temporary committee formed during foreign crises
C) It reviews the policies, budget, and global engagements of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
D) It only includes members from the ruling party

Answer: C) It reviews the policies, budget, and global engagements of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)

23. What is the ‘Dunki Route’ commonly associated with?

A) Legal emigration of skilled workers from India
B) An underground tunnel system used for human trafficking
C) A dangerous multi-country illegal migration path used to enter developed nations
D) A new visa program introduced by the U.S. for skilled workers

Answer: C) A dangerous multi-country illegal migration path used to enter developed nations

24. Which legal framework governs the regulation of overseas employment for Indian workers and is set to be replaced by the Overseas Mobility Bill, 2024?

A) Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita, 2023
B) The Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Emigration Act, 1983
D) Foreigners Act, 1946

Answer: C) Emigration Act, 1983

25. What is one of the key challenges faced by Indian illegal migrants in the U.S.?

A) Easy access to social welfare schemes
B) Faster visa processing for illegal migrants
C) Risk of detention, deportation, and blacklisting from re-entering the U.S.
D) Direct employment opportunities in high-paying jobs

Answer: C) Risk of detention, deportation, and blacklisting from re-entering the U.S.